So, this is probably a very simple question, but I'm confused about what, exactly, is the definition for what makes a Title 1 school an official "Title 1" school. Different websites say it's for +35%, +40%, or +50% of low-income student body, and I'm not sure what to make of it. Is it a federal standard, or does it vary by state or school district?
(Reason I'm asking is that I'm a parent transferring my kid to a current Title 1 school (53% low income) that AFAIK uses those funds for their after-school intervention and Saturday school. But next year they're projected to only have 48% low-income students, and I was told that would make them no longer a Title 1 school. Hmm....)
Submitted March 31, 2019 at 06:49PM by DemiurgeMCK https://ift.tt/2WAnUnm
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